
We have 2 sources of this utterance:
καὶ τῇ ὥρᾳ τῇ ἐνάτῃ ἐβόησεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς φωνῇ μεγάλῃ·
Ἐλωΐ Ἐλωΐ λαμὰ σαβαχθανί
καὶ τῇ ὥρᾳ τῇ ἐνάτῃ
And at the ninth hour
ἐβόησεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς φωνῇ μεγάλῃ·
Jesus cried out with a loud voice
Ἐλωΐ Ἐλωΐ λαμὰ σαβαχθανί·
(phonetic cry preserved as sound)
ὅ ἐστιν μεθερμηνευόμενον·
which is being interpreted / translated
ὁ θεός μου ὁ θεός μου,
my god, my god
εἰς τί ἐγκατέλιπές με;
for what / toward what have you abandoned me
This is not calm speech.
It is a loud vocal emission — exactly how ritual cries are described.
περὶ δὲ τὴν ἐνάτην ὥραν ἀνεβόησεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς φωνῇ μεγάλῃ λέγων·
Ἠλί Ἠλί λεμὰ σαβαχθανί
Same structure:
Matthew clearly copies the sound, not the grammar.
That’s why the spelling shifts.
The Greek question mark (;) is a Byzantine development, centuries later (8th–9th century CE). It does not appear in first-millennium gospel manuscripts (1st c. CE). No punctuation, and often no word spacings either.
So when modern printed editions or translations show:
(phonetic cry preserved as sound)
It's a cry here (not a question), and the question mark could denote uncertainty of the sound. σαβαχθανίη perhaps.
Mark himself adds a prose gloss afterward explaining the cry as if it meant “why have you abandoned me.” Later editors then retrojected that explanation back into the line by adding the question mark ";" punctuation:
which is being interpreted / translated
εἰς τί ἐγκατέλιπές με;
for what / toward what have you abandoned me
He basically says:
Jesus cried out a sound, which people explain as “my god, my god, for what have you abandoned me?”
The question mark originates from Byzantine grammatical clarification of the translation line (not of the cry). In the scribal sequence, this question appeared first here, before sabachthani had it's ";" appended:
for what / toward what have you abandoned me
Mark’s structure is:
cry → which is interpreted as → a Greek questione.g.
Jesus cried out a sound, which people explain as “my god, my god, for what have you abandoned me?”
The cry itself is not a question.
The punctuation belongs only to the interpretation layer.
The cry itself is unpunctuated sound, and is an invocation.
When you see a question mark, you are not seeing Mark.
You are seeing a later grammatical decision imposed on Mark’s gloss.
Ἵππας, θυμίαμα, στύρακα.
Ἵππαν κικλήσκω Βάκχου τροφόν, εὐάδα κούρην,
μυστιπόλον τελετῇσιν ἀγαλλομένην Σάβου ἁγνοῦ,
νυκτερίοισι τε χοροῖσιν ἐριβρεμέταο Ἰάκχου.
κλῦθί μευ εὐχομένου, χθονίη μήτηρ, βασίλεια,
εἴτε σύ γ’ ἐν Φρυγίῃ κατέχεις Ἴδης ὄρος ἁγνὸν,
ἢ Τμῶλος τέρπει σε, καλὸν Λυδοῖσι θόασμα·
ἔρχεο πρὸς τελετὰς ἱερῷ γηθοῦσα προσώπῳ.
Hipta matters because her hymn shows how Greeks call chthonic powers
In the hymn, the speaker does three very specific things:
That is exactly the kind of speech happening in the cross-cry if you stay inside Greek ritual logic.
Hipta is not important because “Jesus = Hipta” (that would be nonsense).
Hipta is important because her hymn preserves the grammar of chthonic calling.
When Proclus writes:
μυστιπόλον τελετῇσιν ἀγαλλομένην Σάβου ἁγνοῦ
he shows that Σάβου / Saba- belongs to:
So when you hear σαβα-χθαν-ίη, the Greek ear already knows:
“This is the sound used when calling an earth-power in a rite.”
Hipta gives us the dictionary of ritual behavior, not a doctrine.
She shows us what kind of utterance this is.
That’s why she’s relevant.
this line is not a saying.
It’s not a teaching.
It’s not a parable.
It’s not dialogue.
It’s a φωνή (phone) — a vocal event.
Greek authors only preserve those when:
That’s why only Mark preserves it first, and Matthew copies it.
Luke and John avoid it entirely — which tells you ancient authors already found it awkward to interpret, not easy to explain.
σαβα is not a word by itself.
It is a sound-cluster that belongs to Greek ritual language.
When Ancient Greeks hear σαβα-, they think:
That comes straight from σαβάζω (shake violently) and σέβας (religious awe).
Same sound family. Same cultic space.
So σαβα means something like:
“ecstatic awe”
“ritual shaking”
“initiation-force”
Not as a sentence. As a felt state.
“giving someone Saba” means to initiate them.
Think of inhaling the smoke from (herbal) sacrifice or incense.
Now χθονίη (chthonie).
This one is a real grammatical word.
It means:
“O one of the earth”
“O chthonic mother”
“You who belong below”
You say χθονίη when you are calling an earth-power directly.
Now put them together:
σαβα χθονίη
Not a sentence.
Not grammar.
A call.
It means:
“Ecstatic, awe-bringing one of the earth”
“O chthonic power of initiation and shaking”
“O earth-mother who brings trance and descent”
Like a child yelling:
“Big scary mom of the ground!”
Not explaining. Calling.
σαβαχθανί — which we restore to σαβαχθανίη once the dying breath is accounted for. The trailing vowel is fading; the scribe hears something, not a clean ending, and later editors slap a question mark on it. But Greek manuscripts originally had no question marks, and Greek ritual speech does not invoke by asking questions.
Phonetically restored, σαβαχθανίη aligns with cultic sound-forms connected to Σάβου / Σάβα, which in Greek ritual language is about awe / shaking / initiation force. LSJ under σεβάζω gives the core sense as “to make sacred, to initiate with reverent awe.” Exactly the register Proclus preserves when he writes of Hipta, the chthonic mother, approached through incense and nocturnal rites.
Now connect this back to the cross-cry.
When you hear σαβαχθανίη, what the Greek ear hears is:
So the meaning is not “why”.
The meaning is:
Calling out to a chthonic initiatory power as life leaves the body
That is why:
Jesus is not asking anything.
He is calling.
He is calling a chthonic initiatory power associated with:
The words sound broken because the breath is breaking.
That’s it.
That’s the whole thing.
Jesus was making an invocation to the earth mother, who brings initiatory shaking awe and descent into trance.
“Ecstatic, awe-bringing one of the earth”
“O chthonic power of initiation and shaking”
“O earth-mother who brings trance and descent”
This is the shout of a bacchant who is performing the mystery
What's crazy is that he got himself killed while performing the mystery itself.
He was supposed to enter "into death", and then come out in "ressurection", but his boy got clipped, and he ended up dazed on a cross, screaming out bacchic implications to the god.
σαβαχθανί (with possible fading vowel)
The Good: Below, sabachthonie (σαβαχθανιη) here works linguistically:
Only one solid option. But those other 3 options sound directionally similar.
So we have some alignment!